Jump to content

Recommended Posts

I'm in a college calculus class (this being my senior year in high school). A few months ago my class was introduced to definite integration. I have a solid handle on that, though the book gave no proof for that kind of integration. All it said was that



âˆĢf(x) = F(B) - F(a).



I know this is true, but the book provided no proof as to how humanity knows that the difference of the antiderivatives of the endpoints is equal to the area under the curve. I wanna know why, but cant find the proof anywhere and my professor is clueless himself as to what the proof is.


Anyone else know the proof for definite integration (or your textbook has it), or able to find a site the provides it?

Edited by Social Democratic Confederation (see edit history)
Link to comment

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
  • Create New...